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Last Updated: Sep 13, 2026

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PRMIA 8010 Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionWeightObjectives
Topic 1: Introduction2%- Overview of Operational Risk Management
Topic 2: Operational Risk Capital6%- Capital Concepts & Basel III Context
Topic 3: Risk Management Framework10%- Risk Appetite, Policies, Culture
Topic 4: Case Studies6%- Applied Operational Risk Scenarios
Topic 5: Risk Governance6%- Governance Principles and Risk Roles
Topic 6: Compliance Risk6%- Compliance Risk Framework
Topic 7: Operational Resilience4%- Resilience Concepts and Practices
Topic 8: Risk Information10%- Loss Data, KRIs and Reporting
Topic 9: Risk Assessment10%- Risk Identification and Assessment Techniques

PRMIA Operational Risk Manager (ORM) Sample Questions:

Question #1

A bullet bond and an amortizing loan are issued at the same time with the same maturity and with the same principal. Which of these would have a greater credit exposure halfway through their life?

  • A. The amortizing loan
  • B. Indeterminate with the given information
  • C. They would have identical exposure half way through their lives
  • D. The bullet bond
Answer: D

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Question #2

Which of the following credit risk models includes a consideration of macro economic variables such asunemployment, balance of payments etc to assess credit risk?

  • A. CreditPortfolio View
  • B. The CreditMetrics approach
  • C. The actuarial approach
  • D. KMV's EDF based approach
Answer: A

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Question #3

The CDS quote for the bonds of Bank X is 200 bps. Assuming a recovery rate of 40%, calculate the default hazard rate priced in the CDS quote.

  • A. 0.80%
  • B. 3.33%
  • C. 2.00%
  • D. 5.00%
Answer: B

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Question #4

Which of the following represents a riskier exposure for a bank: A LIBOR based loan, or an Overnight Indexed Swap? Which of the two rates is expected to be higher?
Assume the same counterparty and the same notional.

  • A. Overnight Index Swap; OIS rate will be higher
  • B. A LIBOR based loan; OIS rate will be higher
  • C. A LIBOR based loan; LIBOR rate will be higher
  • D. Overnight Index Swap; LIBOR rate will be higher
Answer: C

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Question #5

Aderivative contract has a negative current replacement value. Which of the following statements is true about its loan equivalent value for credit risk calculations over a 2-year horizon?

  • A. The credit exposure will be a given quintile of the expected distribution of the value of the derivatives contract in the future.
  • B. The current exposure can be used for loan equivalence calculations as that is an unbiased proxy for the future value.
  • C. The notional value of the derivatives contract should be used for loan equivalence calculations.
  • D. Since the derivatives contract has a negative current replacementvalue, exposure will be zero.
Answer: A

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