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Updated: Jul 19, 2026
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PRMIA 8011 Exam Overview:
| Certification Vendor: | PRMIA |
| Exam Name: | Credit and Counterparty Risk Management (CCRM) Certificate Exam |
| Exam Number: | 8011 |
| Exam Format: | Multiple Choice |
| Exam Duration: | 120 minutes |
| Certificate Validity Period: | No expiration |
| Available Languages: | English |
| Passing Score: | 60% |
| Exam Price: | $529 USD |
| Related Certifications: | PRM Designation Market, Liquidity and Asset Liability Risk Management (MLARM) Operational Risk Management (ORM) |
| Real Exam Qty: | 60 |
| Sample Questions: | PRMIA 8011 Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Pearson VUE test centers and online remote proctoring |
| Pre Condition: | Candidates must have a PRMIA account. No formal prerequisite exams are required. |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://prmia.org/Public/Public/Certificate/CCRM_.aspx |
PRMIA 8011 Exam Syllabus Topics:
| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Counterparty Risk | - Counterparty exposure
|
| Classic Credit Risk Methodology | - Traditional credit analysis
|
| Management of CVA and DVA | - CVA management techniques
|
| Credit Derivatives and Securitization | - Securitization structures
|
| Modern Credit Risk Modeling | - PD/LGD modeling
|
| Classic Credit Products and Lifecycle | - Traditional credit products
|
| Credit Portfolio Management | - Risk-adjusted performance
|
| CVA and DVA | - Credit valuation adjustment
|
| Standardized Approach for Counterparty Credit Risk | - Regulatory capital treatment
|
PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Sample Questions:
1. For a corporate issuer, which of the following can be used to calculate market implied default probabilities?
I. CDS spreads
II. Bond prices
III. Credit rating issued by S&P
IV. Altman's scoring model
A) I and II
B) II and III
C) III and IV
D) I, II and III
2. Which of the following formulae describes CVA (Credit Valuation Adjustment)? All acronyms have their usual meanings (LGD=Loss Given Default, ENE=Expected Negative Exposure, EE=Expected Exposure, PD=Probability of Default, EPE=Expected Positive Exposure, PFE=Potential Future Exposure)
A) LGD * EE * PD
B) LGD * ENE * PD
C) LGD * EPE * PD
D) LGD * PFE * PD
3. Which of the following are valid criticisms of value at risk:
I. There are many risks that a VaR framework cannot model
II. VaR does not consider liquidity risk
III. VaR does not account for historical market movements
IV. VaR does not consider the risk of contagion
A) I and III
B) II and IV
C) I, II and IV
D) All of the above
4. Which of the following decisions need to be made as part of laying down a system for calculating VaR:
I. The confidence level and horizon
II. Whether portfolio valuation is based upon a delta-gamma approximation or a full revaluation III. Whether the VaR is to be disclosed in the quarterly financial statements IV. Whether a 10 day VaR will be calculated based on 10-day return periods, or for 1-day and scaled to 10 days
A) I and III
B) II and IV
C) I, II and IV
D) All of the above
5. A risk analyst peforming PCA wishes to explain 80% of the variance. The first orthogonal factor has a volatility of 100, and the second 40, and the third 30. Assume there are no other factors. Which of the factors will be included in the final analysis?
A) First and Second
B) Insufficient information to answer the question
C) First, Second and Third
D) First
Solutions:
| Question # 1 Answer: A | Question # 2 Answer: C | Question # 3 Answer: C | Question # 4 Answer: C | Question # 5 Answer: D |
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