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Following is the Test Prep EMT Exam Format
Format: Multiple choices, multiple answers
- Passing score: 70%
- Length of Examination: 120 minutes
- Language: English
- Number of Questions: 70-120
NEW QUESTION # 50
A 31-year-old patient has an open femur fracture and an unstable pelvis after falling 15 feet. They are conscious and responsive to verbal stimuli. The vital signs are BP 86/42, P 136, R 24, and SpO# 92% on room air. The patient has which of the following types of shock? Select the two correct options.
- A. Obstructive
- B. Distributive
- C. Hypovolemic
- D. Decompensated
- E. Compensated
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
This is a classic presentation ofhypovolemic shockdue to traumaticblood loss(open femur fracture, pelvic instability). Indicators include:
* Low BP (86/42)= hypotension
* High pulse (P 136)= compensation
* Mental status decline (responsive only to voice)= indicatesdecompensatedshock Obstructive and distributive shock are not applicable. Compensated shock would shownormal BPandalert mental status.
References:
NREMT Shock Management and Trauma Guidelines
National EMS Education Standards - Hemorrhagic and Non-Hemorrhagic Shock AAOS EMT Textbook - Chapter: Types of Shock
NEW QUESTION # 51
A choking patient becomes unresponsive. What should the EMT perform next? Select the two correct options.
- A. Open mouth
- B. Do not ventilate until the foreign body is removed
- C. Check for a pulse
- D. Begin chest compressions
- E. Position the patient in recovery and administer back blows
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
If a choking patient becomes unresponsive, EMTs should:
* Check for a pulse
* Begin chest compressions if no pulse is foundChest compressions can help dislodge the object. After compressions, the airway should be opened and inspected. Back blows are not appropriate for unconscious patients.
Ventilation is attempted after clearing the airway or if no object is seen. Do not withhold compressions waiting for object removal.
References:
AHA BLS Provider Manual (2020) - Foreign Body Airway Obstruction Algorithm NREMT Airway Skills Sheet - Obstructed Airway National EMS Education Standards - Respiratory and Airway Management
NEW QUESTION # 52
At which of the following anatomic locations can wound packing be performed to stop bleeding? Select the three answer options that are correct.
- A. Right forearm
- B. Right temple
- C. Left axilla
- D. Left shoulder
- E. Right upper abdominal quadrant
- F. Left hip
Answer: C,D,F
Explanation:
NREMT hemorrhage-control education emphasizes wound packing for severe external bleeding that cannot be controlled with direct pressure or a tourniquet, particularly in junctional areas. Junctional areas are regions where tourniquets are ineffective due to proximity to the torso.
Option B (Left axilla) is correct. The axilla is a classic junctional site where major vessels are present and tourniquets cannot be applied effectively.
Option A (Left hip) is correct because wounds near the inguinal region are considered junctional and are appropriate for wound packing.
Option C (Left shoulder) is also considered a junctional area where wound packing may be used if bleeding is severe and not amenable to tourniquet placement.
Option D (Right temple) is incorrect because wound packing is contraindicated in the skull.
Option E (Right forearm) is incorrect because tourniquets are preferred on extremities.
Option F (Right upper abdominal quadrant) is incorrect because wound packing is not performed in the abdominal cavity.
NREMT stresses early hemorrhage control as a top trauma priority due to preventable death from bleeding.
NEW QUESTION # 53
A 60-year-old patient has severe pain in the right hip after falling down four stairs. They have deformity and shortening of the right leg. The vital signs are BP 164/88, P 90, R 18, and SpO# 96% on room air. What actions should the EMT take for this patient? Select the two answer options that are correct.
- A. Apply oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.
- B. Splint with blankets and pillows.
- C. Place on the cot and elevate the legs.
- D. Use a pelvic binder.
- E. Apply mild traction to the right leg.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (Based on NREMT standards):
The patient's signs-hip pain, deformity, and leg shortening-are consistent with a proximal femur or hip fracture. NREMT trauma care emphasizes immobilization, pain reduction, and prevention of further injury.
Option C (Apply mild traction) is appropriate to reduce muscle spasm and pain when a femur fracture is suspected and no contraindications are present.
Option D (Splint with blankets and pillows) is correct because soft splinting stabilizes the injury and limits movement during transport.
Option A is not required because oxygen saturation is adequate.
Option B is contraindicated because leg elevation may worsen pain or bleeding.
Option E is reserved for unstable pelvic fractures, not isolated hip fractures.
NREMT emphasizes gentle handling, immobilization, and rapid transport for suspected hip fractures.
NEW QUESTION # 54
A 30-year-old patient has a gunshot wound to the chest and is unconscious. The skin is pale and cool, and capillary refill is 2 seconds. Lung sounds are absent on the right side. The vital signs are BP 100/50, P 140, R
18 and shallow, and SpO# 88% on room air.
Which of the following signs or symptoms are the strongest indicators of hypovolemic shock? Select the three answer options that are correct.
- A. Heart rate
- B. Lung sounds
- C. Mental status
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
Hypovolemic shock results from acute blood loss, commonly seen with penetrating trauma such as gunshot wounds. NREMT identifies several key indicators that reflect reduced circulating volume and inadequate tissue perfusion.
Option A (Heart rate) is a strong indicator. Tachycardia (P 140) reflects the body's attempt to compensate for reduced blood volume and maintain cardiac output.
Option B (Lung sounds) are significant in this case because absent sounds suggest associated chest trauma that may contribute to blood loss and impaired oxygenation, worsening shock.
Option C (Mental status) is a critical indicator. Unconsciousness reflects inadequate cerebral perfusion, a late and serious sign of shock.
Additional supportive findings include pale, cool skin and borderline hypotension. NREMT emphasizes early recognition of shock and rapid control of bleeding, oxygenation, and transport to definitive care.
NEW QUESTION # 55
A 30-year-old patient is injured in a motor vehicle collision. The patient cannot move their diaphragm, and they are apneic. In which of the following locations should the EMT suspect the spinal injury occurred?
- A. T3
- B. T1
- C. L4
- D. C4
Answer: D
Explanation:
The diaphragm is innervated by the phrenic nerve, which originates from spinal nerve roots C3-C5.
NREMT teaching highlights the phrase: "C3, 4, and 5 keep the diaphragm alive." Option A (C4) is correct because an injury at or above this level can paralyze the diaphragm, resulting in apnea and immediate respiratory failure.
Option B (T1) and C (T3) affect intercostal muscles but not the diaphragm.
Option D (L4) affects lower extremity function only.
NREMT emphasizes that high cervical spine injuries are immediately life-threatening due to loss of ventilatory control.
NEW QUESTION # 56
In which of the following positions should a patient with an altered level of consciousness be transported?
- A. Supine with legs elevated
- B. Semi-Fowler
- C. Left lateral recumbent
- D. Sitting up at a 90° angle
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (Based on NREMT standards):
Patients with an altered level of consciousness are at increased risk of airway compromise due to loss of protective reflexes. NREMT guidelines stress the importance of airway protection during transport.
The left lateral recumbent position (recovery position) is preferred because it allows secretions, vomitus, or blood to drain from the mouth, reducing the risk of aspiration. This position also helps maintain airway patency without requiring invasive airway devices.
Option A may be appropriate for respiratory distress but does not adequately protect the airway in patients with decreased consciousness.
Option C is unsafe because the patient cannot maintain posture or airway control.
Option D increases aspiration risk unless spinal precautions are required.
NREMT teaches that airway protection is the priority when transporting patients with altered mental status.
NEW QUESTION # 57
Which of the following would potentially complicate patient care during a helicopter transport?
- A. Position of the patient's head within the aircraft
- B. Maintaining 98% oxygen saturation
- C. Use of air splints to immobilize fractures
- D. Increase in the atmospheric humidity
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Theposition of the patient's headwithin the aircraft affectsaccess to airway managementandcrew maneuverability. If the head is oriented away from providers or toward a non-accessible bulkhead, this can delay critical interventions(airway suctioning, ventilations).
Use of air splints, maintaining oxygen saturation, or environmental humidity are not major complications relative tophysical positioningandin-cabin access limitations.
References:
NREMT EMS Operations - Air Medical Transport
NAEMSP (National Association of EMS Physicians): Air Medical Guidelines EMS Helicopter Safety Protocols - FAA Advisory Circulars
NEW QUESTION # 58
A 9-year-old patient who was injured in an MCI is brought to the treatment area with a delayed triage tag. Which of the following signs or symptoms would the EMT expect to find? Select the three correct options.
- A. Ability to ambulate
- B. Respiratory rate of 16
- C. Mottled skin
- D. Breathing only after opening the airway
- E. Palpable pulses being present
- F. Follows simple commands
Answer: A,E,F
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
In pediatric START orJumpSTARTtriage, a "delayed" status is appropriate if the child is breathing adequately, has palpable pulses, and follows commands. The respiratory rate of 16 is normal for a 9-year-old, and being able to walk also supports the "delayed" tag.
"Mottled skin" and "breathing only after airway opening" would more likely lead to "immediate" or even
"expectant" categories depending on associated symptoms.
References:
JumpSTART Pediatric MCI Triage Algorithm
National EMS Education Standards - Triage
PALS Provider Manual (American Heart Association)
NEW QUESTION # 59
A 58-year-old patient reports chest pain and difficulty breathing after missing their last three hemodialysis treatments. Which of the following signs and symptoms should the EMT suspect to find?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Crackles
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Fever
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Missing dialysis leads tofluid overload, causing:
* Pulmonary edema, evident bycrackleson auscultation
* Dyspnea and chest discomfort
Bradycardia is less likely; patients more often present withtachycardiadue to volume stress. Fever would suggest infection (not stated here), and hypotension can occur later, but hypertension is more common in early fluid overload.
References:
NREMT Medical Emergencies - Renal and Dialysis Patients
National Kidney Foundation Guidelines - Missed Dialysis and Pulmonary Symptoms AAOS EMT Textbook - Urologic and Fluid Volume Imbalance
NEW QUESTION # 60
A 3-year-old patient ingested laundry detergent. The patient is drowsy and has crackles in all lung fields. What should most concern the EMT at this time? Select the three answer options that are correct.
- A. Seizure
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Acid reflux
- D. Respiratory failure
- E. Vomiting
- F. Esophageal perforation
Answer: D,E,F
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Laundry detergent ingestion - especially in the case ofliquid detergent pods- is associated withcaustic airway and gastrointestinal injuries. The presence ofcracklesanddrowsinessare signs of aspiration and possiblerespiratory failure. Vomiting increases the risk ofaspiration pneumonitis, andesophageal perforationis a life-threatening complication from corrosive ingestion.
While seizure and hypoglycemia are possible complications of toxic ingestion, they are not as immediately linked to the detergent profile as airway injury and aspiration risk.
References:
NREMT Pediatric Toxicology and Airway Emergencies
National Poison Data System (NPDS) Annual Report
AAOS Emergency Care Textbook (11th ed.) - Pediatric Poisoning and Toxin Exposure
NEW QUESTION # 61
A 10-year-old patient is unresponsive in a park. What locations should the EMT use to assess for the presence of a pulse? Select the two answer options that are correct.
- A. Femoral
- B. Brachial
- C. Radial
- D. Popliteal
- E. Carotid
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (Based on NREMT standards):
For unresponsive children, NREMT guidelines recommend checking central pulses to determine circulation.
Option B (Carotid) is correct and is the preferred pulse site for children over 1 year old.
Option C (Femoral) is also acceptable as a central pulse, especially if the carotid pulse is difficult to locate.
Option A is a peripheral pulse and unreliable in shock.
Option D is used for infants under 1 year.
Option E is not used for pulse assessment.
Accurate pulse assessment guides CPR decisions and must be completed within 10 seconds.
NEW QUESTION # 62
A 26-year-old patient has an altered mental status. Family advises that the patient has diabetes. The patient's skin is pale, cool, and clammy. What, if anything, can the EMT infer about the patient's glucose level based on the patient's presentation?
- A. The patient's blood sugar cannot be inferred.
- B. The patient's blood sugar is most likely high.
- C. The patient's blood sugar is most likely normal.
- D. The patient's blood sugar is most likely low.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Altered mental status, combined withpale, cool, and clammy skin, is strongly suggestive ofhypoglycemia (low blood sugar). Hypoglycemia is especially dangerous in diabetics who take insulin or oral hypoglycemics.
The body'sadrenergic responsecauses the "cool and clammy" presentation.
Hyperglycemia typically presents withwarm, dry skinand develops more slowly. EMTs shouldadminister oral glucoseif the patient can swallow.
References:
NREMT Medical Guidelines - Endocrine Emergencies
AAOS EMT Textbook (11th ed.), Chapter: Endocrine and Metabolic Emergencies National EMS Education Standards - Diabetic Emergencies
NEW QUESTION # 63
A 24-year-old patient was involved in an MVC. The EMT is completing the patient care report. Which of the following statements indicate pertinent negatives? Select the two correct options.
- A. "The patient initially refused assessment."
- B. "The patient denied neck or back pain."
- C. "The patient reported no loss of consciousness."
- D. "The patient reported abdominal tenderness."
- E. "The patient was disruptive and non-compliant with EMS."
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Pertinent negativesare findings that arenot present, butwould be clinically relevant if they were. For example:
* "No neck or back pain"helps rule out spinal injury
* "No loss of consciousness"informs head trauma assessment
Statements about behavior or initial refusal (B, E) may be documented under patient behavior or refusal, but they are not pertinent negatives. Positive findings like abdominal tenderness arepertinent positives.
References:
NREMT Documentation Standards
National EMS Education Standards - Communication and Documentation
Brady Emergency Care (13th ed.) - Patient Care Reporting
NEW QUESTION # 64
What patient conditions have an indication for the use of a CPAP device? Select the three answer options that are correct.
- A. Acute myocardial infarction
- B. Pulmonary edema from burns
- C. Acute bronchospasms
- D. Pulmonary edema
- E. Spontaneous pneumothorax
- F. Chronic bronchitis
Answer: C,D,F
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (Based on NREMT standards):
Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) is used in patients with moderate to severe respiratory distress who are conscious and able to maintain their airway. NREMT guidelines identify specific respiratory conditions where CPAP improves oxygenation and ventilation.
Option A (Chronic bronchitis) is correct because CPAP helps overcome airway collapse and improves gas exchange in COPD patients.
Option B (Pulmonary edema) is correct because CPAP reduces preload and afterload while forcing fluid out of alveoli, improving oxygenation.
Option C (Acute bronchospasms) is correct because CPAP helps splint open airways and reduce work of breathing.
Option D is incorrect because CPAP is not used for isolated myocardial infarction without respiratory failure.
Option E is contraindicated because positive pressure can worsen a pneumothorax.
Option F is contraindicated due to airway burns and potential inhalation injury.
NREMT stresses proper patient selection to prevent CPAP-related complications.
NEW QUESTION # 65
A 23-year-old male fell down a flight of stairs, struck his head, and briefly lost consciousness. He opens his eyes when you ask him questions, knows his name, but doesn't know where he is or what happened.
He is able to squeeze your hands on command. What is his Glasgow Coma Score?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Use theGlasgow Coma Scale (GCS)to calculate:
* Eye Opening (E):Opens to speech = 3
* Verbal Response (V):Confused but appropriate words = 4
* Motor Response (M):Obeys commands = 6Total = 3 + 4 + 6 = 13
However, thequestion states he opens eyes to voice, knows name (orientation to person), and follows commands- this would mean:
* Eye = 3
* Verbal = 5(Oriented to person, but disoriented to place/time)
* Motor = 6
Correct Total: 14
References:
NREMT Trauma Guidelines - Neurological Assessment
Glasgow Coma Scale - CDC and AHA Standards
AAOS Emergency Care Textbook - Head Injury Chapter
NEW QUESTION # 66
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Test Prep EMT Exam Introduction
The National Register Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) cognitive test is a computer adaptive test (CAT).This means that each candidate is evaluated based on the position of the responses on a spectrum. Once a candidate gets the correct answers, the computer will automatically enter more difficult questions to continue testing the candidate's skill level. The number of items a candidate can expect from the EMT exam will be between 70 and 120. Each exam will have between 60 and 110 “live” elements that will be counted towards the final score. The exam will also include 10 pilot questions that do not affect the final score. The maximum time allowed to complete the exam is 2 hours. To pass the exam, candidates must meet a standard skill level. The standard of success is defined by the ability to provide safe and effective entry-level emergency medical care.
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