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CompTIA CASP+ certification is an excellent choice for experienced security professionals who want to advance their careers. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam certification demonstrates to employers that the candidate has the skills and knowledge required to design, implement, and manage secure solutions across complex enterprise environments. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam certification also opens up new job opportunities and can lead to higher salaries. In addition, the certification is recognized globally, which means that certified professionals can work in any country that recognizes the certification.
NEW QUESTION # 59
A security engineer was auditing an organization's current software development practice and discovered that multiple open-source libraries were Integrated into the organization's software. The organization currently performs SAST and DAST on the software it develops.
Which of the following should the organization incorporate into the SDLC to ensure the security of the open-source libraries?
- A. Track the library versions and monitor the CVE website for related vulnerabilities.
- B. Implement the SDLC security guidelines.
- C. Perform unit testing of the open-source libraries.
- D. Perform additional SAST/DAST on the open-source libraries.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 60
A company security engineer arrives at work to face the following scenario:
1) Website defacement
2) Calls from the company president indicating the website needs to be fixed Immediately because It Is damaging the brand
3) A Job offer from the company's competitor
4) A security analyst's investigative report, based on logs from the past six months, describing how lateral movement across the network from various IP addresses originating from a foreign adversary country resulted in exfiltrated data Which of the following threat actors Is MOST likely involved?
- A. Script kiddie
- B. Competitor
- C. APT/nation-state
- D. Organized crime
Answer: C
Explanation:
An Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) is an attack that is targeted, well-planned, and conducted over a long period of time by a nation-state actor. The evidence provided in the scenario indicates that the security analyst has identified a foreign adversary, which is strong evidence that an APT/nation-state actor is responsible for the attack. Resources:
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Study Guide, Chapter 5: "Advanced Persistent Threats," Wiley, 2018. https://www.wiley.com/en-us/CompTIA+Advanced+Security+Practitioner+CASP%2B+Study+Guide%2C+2nd+Edition-p-9781119396582
NEW QUESTION # 61
An enterprise's Chief Technology Officer (CTO) and Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) are meeting to discuss ongoing capacity and resource planning issues. The enterprise has experienced rapid, massive growth over the last 12 months, and the technology department is stretched thin for resources. A new accounting service is required to support the enterprise's growth, but the only available compute resources that meet the accounting service requirements are on the virtual platform, which is hosting the enterprise's website.
Which of the following should the CISO be MOST concerned about?
- A. The CTO does not have the budget available to purchase required resources and manage growth.
- B. Poor capacity planning could cause an oversubscribed host, leading to poor performance on the company's website.
- C. A security vulnerability that is exploited on the website could expose the accounting service.
- D. Transferring as many services as possible to a CSP could free up resources.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 62
A security solution uses a sandbox environment to execute zero-day software and collect indicators of compromise. Which of the following should the organization do to BEST take advantage of this solution?
- A. Update the organization's group policy.
- B. Develop an Nmap plug-in to detect the indicator of compromise.
- C. Include the signature in the vulnerability scanning tool.
- D. Deliver an updated threat signature throughout the EDR system.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 63
Which of the following indicates when a company might not be viable after a disaster?
- A. Maximum tolerable downtime
- B. Mean time to recovery
- C. Annual loss expectancy
- D. Recovery time objective
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 64
After a cybersecurity incident, a judge found that a company did not conduct a proper forensic investigation. The company was ordered to pay penalties. Which of the following forensic steps would be best to prevent this from happening again?
- A. Evidence preservation
- B. Evidence verification
- C. Evidence analysis
- D. Evidence collection
Answer: A
Explanation:
Proper forensic investigation requires that evidence is preserved in a manner that maintains its integrity and reliability. To prevent legal issues such as penalties for not conducting a proper forensic investigation, the first and most crucial step is to ensure that evidence is preserved so that it can be verified, collected, and analyzed correctly. This involves making sure that the evidence is not tampered with or altered from the time it is identified until it is presented in a legal proceeding.
NEW QUESTION # 65
A security analyst is investigating a series of suspicious emails by employees to the security team. The email appear to come from a current business partner and do not contain images or URLs. No images or URLs were stripped from the message by the security tools the company uses instead, the emails only include the following in plain text.
Which of the following should the security analyst perform?
- A. Configure the email gateway to automatically quarantine all messages originating from the business partner.
- B. Contact the security department at the business partner and alert them to the email event.
- C. Pull the devices of the affected employees from the network in case they are infected with a zero-day virus.
- D. Block the IP address for the business partner at the perimeter firewall.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 66
An architectural firm is working with its security team to ensure that any draft images that are leaked to the public can be traced back to a specific external party. Which of the following would BEST accomplish this goal?
- A. Have the external parties sign non-disclosure agreements before sending any images.
- B. Only share images with external parties that have worked with the firm previously.
- C. Utilize watermarks in the images that are specific to each external party.
- D. Properly configure a secure file transfer system to ensure file integrity.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Watermarking is a technique of adding an identifying image or pattern to an original image to protect its ownership and authenticity. Watermarks can be customized to include specific information about the external party, such as their name, logo, or date of receipt. This way, if any draft images are leaked to the public, the firm can trace back the source of the leak and take appropriate actions. Verified Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Watermark
https://www.canva.com/features/watermark-photos/
https://www.mdpi.com/2078-2489/11/2/110
NEW QUESTION # 67
A security analyst is reviewing the following output:
Which of the following would BEST mitigate this type of attack?
- A. Implementing an IDS
- B. Installing a network firewall
- C. Placing a WAF inline
- D. Deploying a honeypot
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 68
A security analyst is researching containerization concepts for an organization. The analyst is concerned about potential resource exhaustion scenarios on the Docker host due to a single application that is overconsuming available resources.
Which of the following core Linux concepts BEST reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers?
- A. Linux namespaces
- B. Device mapper
- C. Union filesystem overlay
- D. Cgroups
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 69
A security architect Is analyzing an old application that is not covered for maintenance anymore because the software company is no longer in business. Which of the following techniques should have been Implemented to prevent these types of risks?
- A. Code reviews
- B. Software audits
- C. Supply chain visibility
- D. Source code escrows
Answer: D
Explanation:
A source code escrow is a legal agreement that involves a third party holding the source code of a software application on behalf of the software vendor and the software licensee. The source code escrow ensures that the licensee can access the source code in case the vendor goes out of business, fails to provide maintenance or support, or breaches the contract terms.
A source code escrow would have prevented the risk of having an old application that is not covered for maintenance anymore because the software company is no longer in business, because it would:
Allow the licensee to obtain the source code and continue to update, fix, or modify the application according to their needs.
Protect the vendor's intellectual property rights and prevent unauthorized disclosure or use of the source code.
Provide a legal framework and a trusted mediator for resolving any disputes or issues between the vendor and the licensee.
NEW QUESTION # 70
A company is looking to fortify its cybersecurity defenses and is focusing on its network infrastructure. The solution cannot affect the availability of the company's services to ensure false positives do not drop legitimate traffic.
Which of the following would satisfy the requirement?
- A. Reverse proxy
- B. NIDS
- C. WAF
- D. NIPS
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 71
A developer is creating a new mobile application for a company. The application uses REST API and TLS 1.2 to communicate securely with the external back-end server. Due to this configuration, the company is concerned about HTTPS interception attacks.
Which of the following would be the BEST solution against this type of attack?
- A. Cookies
- B. Certificate pinning
- C. Wildcard certificates
- D. HSTS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reference:
Certificate pinning is a technique that can prevent HTTPS interception attacks by hardcoding the expected certificate or public key of the server in the application code, so that any certificate presented by an intermediary will be rejected. Cookies are small pieces of data that are stored by browsers to remember user preferences or sessions, but they do not prevent HTTPS interception attacks. Wildcard certificates are certificates that can be used for multiple subdomains of a domain, but they do not prevent HTTPS interception attacks. HSTS (HTTP Strict Transport Security) is a policy that forces browsers to use HTTPS connections, but it does not prevent HTTPS interception attacks. Verified Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-certificate-pinning https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION # 72
A company that all mobile devices be encrypted, commensurate with the full disk encryption scheme of assets, such as workstation, servers, and laptops. Which of the following will MOST likely be a limiting factor when selecting mobile device managers for the company?
- A. Unavailable of key escrow
- B. Increased network latency
- C. Removal of user authentication requirements
- D. Inability to selected AES-256 encryption
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The inability to select AES-256 encryption will most likely be a limiting factor when selecting mobile device managers for the company. AES-256 is a symmetric encryption algorithm that uses a 256-bit key to encrypt and decrypt data. It is considered one of the strongest encryption methods available and is widely used for securing sensitive data. Mobile device managers are software applications that allow administrators to remotely manage and secure mobile devices used by employees. However, not all mobile device managers may support AES-256 encryption or allow the company to enforce it as a policy on all mobile devices.
Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide ,
https://searchmobilecomputing.techtarget.com/definition/mobile-device-management
NEW QUESTION # 73
A security architect is reviewing the following proposed corporate firewall architecture and configuration:
Both firewalls are stateful and provide Layer 7 filtering and routing. The company has the following requirements:
Web servers must receive all updates via HTTP/S from the corporate network.
Web servers should not initiate communication with the Internet.
Web servers should only connect to preapproved corporate database servers.
Employees' computing devices should only connect to web services over ports 80 and 443.
Which of the following should the architect recommend to ensure all requirements are met in the MOST secure manner? (Choose two.)
- A. Add the following to Firewall_B: 15 PERMIT FROM 192.168.1.0/24 TO 10.0.2.10/32 TCP 80,443
- B. Add the following to Firewall_A: 15 PERMIT FROM 10.0.0.0/16 TO 0.0.0.0/0 TCP 80,443
- C. Add the following to Firewall_B: 15 PERMIT FROM 0.0.0.0/0 TO 10.0.0.0/16 TCP/UDP 0-65535
- D. Add the following to Firewall_A: 15 PERMIT FROM 10.0.0.0/16 TO 0.0.0.0/0 TCP/UDP 0-65535
- E. Add the following to Firewall_A: 15 PERMIT FROM 192.168.1.0/24 TO 0.0.0.0 TCP 80,443
- F. Add the following to Firewall_B: 15 PERMIT FROM 10.0.0.0/16 TO 0.0.0.0 TCP/UDP 0-65535
Answer: B,C
NEW QUESTION # 74
A security analyst is investigating a possible buffer overflow attack. The following output was found on a user's workstation:
graphic.linux_randomization.prg
Which of the following technologies would mitigate the manipulation of memory segments?
- A. ASLR
- B. NX bit
- C. DEP
- D. HSM
Answer: A
Explanation:
The keyword is {the manipulation of memory segments} ASLR prevents that by randomizing memory location. NX bit, ASLR, and DEP all help with buffer overflow but only ASLR handles randomization.
NEW QUESTION # 75
A security team received a regulatory notice asking for information regarding collusion and pricing from staff members who are no longer with the organization. The legal department provided the security team with a list of search terms to investigate.
This is an example of:
- A. due care.
- B. due intelligence
- C. legal hold.
- D. e-discovery.
Answer: D
Explanation:
E-discovery is a form of digital investigation that attempts to find evidence in email, business communications and other data that could be used in litigation or criminal proceedings. The traditional discovery process is standard during litigation, but e-discovery is specific to digital evidence. The evidence from electronic discovery could include data from email accounts, instant messages, social profiles, online documents, databases, internal applications, digital images, website content and any other electronic information that could be used during civil and criminal litigation.
NEW QUESTION # 76
A security analyst observes the following while looking through network traffic in a company's cloud log:
Which of the following steps should the security analyst take FIRST?
- A. Isolate 10.0.50.6 via security groups.
- B. Investigate web logs on 10.0.50.6 to determine if this is normal traffic.
- C. Quarantine 10.0.5.52 and run a malware scan against the host.
- D. Access 10.0.5.52 via EDR and identify processes that have network connections.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 77
A company Is adopting a new artificial-intelligence-based analytics SaaS solution. This Is the company's first attempt at using a SaaS solution, and a security architect has been asked to determine any future risks.
Which of the following would be the GREATEST risk In adopting this solution?
- A. The inability to obtain company data when migrating to another service
- B. The inability to conduct security assessments against a service provider
- C. The inability to require the service provider process data in a specific country
- D. The inability to assign access controls to comply with company policy
Answer: A
Explanation:
When using a SaaS solution, the company entrusts the service provider with its data and relies on the service provider to maintain and protect that data. If the company decides to switch to a different service provider in the future, it is important to ensure that it can obtain its data in a timely and secure manner. If the company is unable to obtain its data when migrating to another service, it could result in significant disruption to its business operations and could lead to financial losses.
NEW QUESTION # 78
A security architect is implementing a SOAR solution in an organization's cloud production environment to support detection capabilities. Which of the following will be the most likely benefit?
- A. Optimized cloud resource utilization
- B. Automated firewall log collection tasks
- C. Increased risk visibility
- D. Improved security operations center performance
Answer: D
Explanation:
SOAR solutions (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) are designed to help organizations efficiently manage security operations. They can automate the collection and analysis of security data, which improves the performance of a security operations center (SOC) by allowing the security team to focus on more strategic tasks and reduce response times to incidents.
NEW QUESTION # 79
A security administrator needs to implement an X.509 solution for multiple sites within the human resources department. This solution would need to secure all subdomains associated with the domain name of the main human resources web server. Which of the following would need to be implemented to properly secure the sites and provide easier private key management?
- A. Registration authority
- B. Digital signature
- C. Certificate pinning
- D. Certificate revocation list
- E. Wildcard certificate
Answer: E
Explanation:
A wildcard certificate is one that contains the wildcard character * in its domain name field. This allows the certificate to be used for any number of subdomains.
Not to be confused with subject alternate name (SAN), wildcard certificates can only be used for subdomains where a SAN can be used to specify a completely different domain name. Wildcard certificates are particularly useful for SSL accelerators and load balancers (LB) that provide the outward-facing component of a website.
NEW QUESTION # 80
A forensic investigator would use the foremostcommand for:
- A. extracting features such as email addresses.
- B. analyzing network-captured packets.
- C. recovering lost files.
- D. cloning disks.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Foremost is a forensic program to recover lost files based on their headers, footers, and internal data structures.
NEW QUESTION # 81
A business wants to migrate its workloads from an exclusively on-premises IT infrastructure to the cloud but cannot implement all the required controls. Which of the following BEST describes the risk associated with this implementation?
- A. Loss of governance
- B. Compliance risk
- C. Vendor lockout
- D. Vendor lock-in
Answer: A
Explanation:
The loss of governance in cloud computing occurs when businesses migrate workloads from an exclusively on-premises IT infrastructure to the cloud without a suitable governance policy in place.
NEW QUESTION # 82
A security manager wants to transition the organization to a zero trust architecture. To meet this requirement, the security manager has instructed administrators to remove trusted zones, role-based access, and one-time authentication. Which of the following will need to be implemented to achieve this objective? (Select THREE).
- A. Least privilege
- B. VPN
- C. Continuous integration
- D. Continuous validation
- E. PKI
- F. Firewall
- G. laas
- H. Policy automation
Answer: A,D,H
Explanation:
Least privilege, policy automation, and continuous validation are some of the key elements that need to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Zero trust architecture is a security model that assumes no implicit trust for any entity or resource, regardless of their location or ownership. Zero trust architecture requires verifying every request and transaction before granting access or allowing data transfer. Zero trust architecture also requires minimizing the attack surface and reducing the risk of lateral movement by attackers.
A) Least privilege is a principle that states that every entity or resource should only have the minimum level of access or permissions necessary to perform its function. Least privilege can help enforce granular and dynamic policies that limit the exposure and impact of potential breaches. Least privilege can also help prevent privilege escalation and abuse by malicious insiders or compromised accounts.
C) Policy automation is a process that enables the creation, enforcement, and management of security policies using automated tools and workflows. Policy automation can help simplify and streamline the implementation of zero trust architecture by reducing human errors, inconsistencies, and delays. Policy automation can also help adapt to changing conditions and requirements by updating and applying policies in real time.
F) Continuous validation is a process that involves verifying the identity, context, and risk level of every request and transaction throughout its lifecycle. Continuous validation can help ensure that only authorized and legitimate requests and transactions are allowed to access or transfer data. Continuous validation can also help detect and respond to anomalies or threats by revoking access or terminating sessions if the risk level changes.
B) VPN is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. VPN stands for Virtual Private Network, which is a technology that creates a secure tunnel between a device and a network over the internet. VPN can provide confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for network communications, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. VPN still relies on network-based perimeters and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.
D) PKI is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. PKI stands for Public Key Infrastructure, which is a system that manages the creation, distribution, and verification of certificates. Certificates are digital documents that contain public keys and identity information of their owners. Certificates can be used to prove the identity and authenticity of the certificate holders, as well as to encrypt and sign data. PKI can provide encryption and authentication for data communications, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. PKI still relies on trusted authorities and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.
E) Firewall is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Firewall is a device or software that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. Firewall can provide protection against unauthorized or malicious network access, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. Firewall still relies on network-based perimeters and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.
G) Continuous integration is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Continuous integration is a software development practice that involves merging code changes from multiple developers into a shared repository frequently and automatically. Continuous integration can help improve the quality, reliability, and performance of software products, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. Continuous integration still relies on code-based quality assurance and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.
H) IaaS is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. IaaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides virtualized computing resources over the internet. IaaS can provide scalability, flexibility, and cost-efficiency for IT infrastructure, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. IaaS still relies on cloud-based security controls and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.
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NEW QUESTION # 83
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The CAS-004 exam consists of 90 multiple-choice and performance-based questions, which must be completed within 165 minutes. CAS-004 exam is designed to test the candidate's knowledge and skills in a range of areas, including enterprise security architecture, risk management, research and collaboration, and integration of computing, communications, and business disciplines.
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