[Q20-Q42] Certification Training for 350-201 Exam Dumps Test Engine [2022]

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Certification Training for 350-201 Exam Dumps Test Engine [2022]

Jan 05, 2022 Step by Step Guide to Prepare for 350-201 Exam


Cisco 350-201 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Determine the next action based on user behavior alerts
  • Determine the steps to investigate the common types of cases
Topic 2
  • Interpret the sequence of events during an attack based on analysis of traffic patterns
  • Interpret the components within a playbook
Topic 3
  • Infer the industry for various compliance standards
  • Evaluate the parts of an HTTP response
Topic 4
  • Describe the different mechanisms to detect and enforce data loss prevention techniques
  • Evaluate artifacts and streams in a packet capture file
Topic 5
  • Describe the concepts and limitations of cyber risk insurance
  • Describe the use of hardening machine images for deployment
Topic 6
  • Describe use and concepts of tools for security data analytics
  • Describe the concepts of security data management
Topic 7
  • Modify a provided script to automate a security operations task
  • Determine opportunities for automation and orchestration
Topic 8
  • Compare security operations considerations of cloud platforms
  • Determine the tools needed based on a playbook scenario
Topic 9
  • Apply the playbook for a common scenario
  • Describe characteristics and areas of improvement using common incident response metrics
Topic 10
  • Determine resources for industry standards and recommendations for hardening of systems
  • Utilize network controls for network hardening
Topic 11
  • Describe the process of evaluating the security posture of an asset
  • Determine patching recommendations, given a scenario


Understanding valuable and particular pieces of 350-201 CISCO Performing CyberOps Using Cisco Security

The going with will be inspected in CISCO 350-201 dumps:

  • Apply the occurrence reaction work process
  • Describe attributes and spaces of progress utilizing normal occurrence reaction measurements
  • Compare security tasks contemplations of cloud stages (for instance, IaaS, PaaS)
  • Describe the ideas and limits of digital danger protection
  • Describe kinds of cloud conditions (for instance, IaaS stage)
  • Apply the playbook for a typical situation (for instance, unapproved rise of advantage, DoS and DDoS, site destruction)
  • Determine the devices required dependent on a playbook situation
  • Interpret the segments inside a playbook
  • Analyze components of a danger examination (mix resource, weakness, and danger)
  • Infer the business for different consistence guidelines (for instance, PCI, FISMA, FedRAMP, SOC, SOX, PCI, GDPR, Data Privacy, and ISO 27101)

 

NEW QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.

What is occurring in this packet capture?

  • A. DNS tunneling
  • B. TCP flood
  • C. TCP port scan
  • D. DNS flood

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 21
A SOC team receives multiple alerts by a rule that detects requests to malicious URLs and informs the incident response team to block the malicious URLs requested on the firewall. Which action will improve the effectiveness of the process?

  • A. Inform the incident response team by enabling an automated email response when the rule is triggered.
  • B. Block local to remote HTTP/HTTPS requests on the firewall for users who triggered the rule.
  • C. Inform the user by enabling an automated email response when the rule is triggered.
  • D. Create an automation script for blocking URLs on the firewall when the rule is triggered.

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 22
Drag and drop the phases to evaluate the security posture of an asset from the left onto the activity that happens during the phases on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:

 

NEW QUESTION 23
After a recent malware incident, the forensic investigator is gathering details to identify the breach and causes. The investigator has isolated the affected workstation. What is the next step that should be taken in this investigation?

  • A. Review audit logs for privilege escalation events.
  • B. Analyze the applications and services running on the affected workstation.
  • C. Compare workstation configuration and asset configuration policy to identify gaps.
  • D. Inspect registry entries for recently executed files.

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 24
Drag and drop the type of attacks from the left onto the cyber kill chain stages at which the attacks are seen on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:

 

NEW QUESTION 25
An employee who often travels abroad logs in from a first-seen country during non-working hours. The SIEM tool generates an alert that the user is forwarding an increased amount of emails to an external mail domain and then logs out. The investigation concludes that the external domain belongs to a competitor. Which two behaviors triggered UEBA? (Choose two.)

  • A. email forwarding to an external domain
  • B. domain belongs to a competitor
  • C. increased number of sent mails
  • D. log in during non-working hours
  • E. log in from a first-seen country

Answer: B,D

 

NEW QUESTION 26
How does Wireshark decrypt TLS network traffic?

  • A. by observing DH key exchange
  • B. with a key log file using per-session secrets
  • C. by defining a user-specified decode-as
  • D. using an RSA public key

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: https://wiki.wireshark.org/TLS

 

NEW QUESTION 27

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer received a report that an attacker has compromised a workstation and gained access to sensitive customer data from the network using insecure protocols. Which action prevents this type of attack in the future?

  • A. Use VLANs to segregate zones and the firewall to allow only required services and secured protocols
  • B. Deploy IDS within sensitive areas and continuously update signatures
  • C. Deploy a SOAR solution and correlate log alerts from customer zones
  • D. Use syslog to gather data from multiple sources and detect intrusion logs for timely responses

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 28
A customer is using a central device to manage network devices over SNMPv2. A remote attacker caused a denial of service condition and can trigger this vulnerability by issuing a GET request for the ciscoFlashMIB OID on an affected device. Which should be disabled to resolve the issue?

  • A. SNMPv2
  • B. TCP small services
  • C. port UDP 161 and 162
  • D. UDP small services

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit. What is occurring in this packet capture?

  • A. DNS tunneling
  • B. TCP flood
  • C. TCP port scan
  • D. DNS flood

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 30

Refer to the exhibit. What is the threat in this Wireshark traffic capture?

  • A. A high rate of SYN packets being sent from multiple sources toward a single destination IP
  • B. A high rate of SYN packets being sent from a single source IP toward multiple destination IPs
  • C. A flood of ACK packets coming from a single source IP to multiple destination IPs
  • D. A flood of SYN packets coming from a single source IP to a single destination IP

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 31
An audit is assessing a small business that is selling automotive parts and diagnostic services. Due to increased customer demands, the company recently started to accept credit card payments and acquired a POS terminal. Which compliance regulations must the audit apply to the company?

  • A. COBIT
  • B. PCI DSS
  • C. HIPAA
  • D. FISMA

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 32
An organization suffered a security breach in which the attacker exploited a Netlogon Remote Protocol vulnerability for further privilege escalation. Which two actions should the incident response team take to prevent this type of attack from reoccurring? (Choose two.)

  • A. Define roles and responsibilities in the incident response playbook.
  • B. Implement a patch management process.
  • C. Apply existing patches to the company servers.
  • D. Automate antivirus scans of the company servers.
  • E. Scan the company server files for known viruses.

Answer: A,D

 

NEW QUESTION 33
What is the impact of hardening machine images for deployment?

  • A. reduces the attack surface
  • B. reduces the steps needed to mitigate threats
  • C. increases the speed of patch deployment
  • D. increases the availability of threat alerts

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit.

IDS is producing an increased amount of false positive events about brute force attempts on the organization's mail server. How should the Snort rule be modified to improve performance?

  • A. Block list of internal IPs from the rule
  • B. Tune the count and seconds threshold of the rule
  • C. Set the rule to track the source IP
  • D. Change the rule content match to case sensitive

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 35
Drag and drop the actions below the image onto the boxes in the image for the actions that should be taken during this playbook step. Not all options are used.

Answer:

Explanation:

 

NEW QUESTION 36
An organization had a breach due to a phishing attack. An engineer leads a team through the recovery phase of the incident response process. Which action should be taken during this phase?

  • A. Identify the traffic with data capture using Wireshark and review email filters
  • B. Update the IDS/IPS signatures and reimage the affected hosts
  • C. Identify the systems that have been affected and tools used to detect the attack
  • D. Host a discovery meeting and define configuration and policy updates

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 37
A SOC team is informed that a UK-based user will be traveling between three countries over the next 60 days. Having the names of the 3 destination countries and the user's working hours, what must the analyst do next to detect an abnormal behavior?

  • A. Create a rule triggered by 1 successful VPN connection from any nondestination country
  • B. Create a rule triggered by 3 failed VPN connection attempts in an 8-hour period
  • C. Create a rule triggered by multiple successful VPN connections from the destination countries
  • D. Analyze the logs from all countries related to this user during the traveling period

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 38
What is a benefit of key risk indicators?

  • A. clear procedures and processes for organizational risk
  • B. improved visibility on quantifiable information
  • C. improved mitigation techniques for unknown threats
  • D. clear perspective into the risk position of an organization

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 39
An organization had an incident with the network availability during which devices unexpectedly malfunctioned. An engineer is investigating the incident and found that the memory pool buffer usage reached a peak before the malfunction. Which action should the engineer take to prevent this issue from reoccurring?

  • A. Enable memory tracing notifications.
  • B. Disable CPU threshold trap toward the SNMP server.
  • C. Disable memory limit.
  • D. Enable memory threshold notifications.

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit.

The Cisco Secure Network Analytics (Stealthwatch) console alerted with "New Malware Server Discovered" and the IOC indicates communication from an end-user desktop to a Zeus C&C Server. Drag and drop the actions that the analyst should take from the left into the order on the right to investigate and remediate this IOC.

Answer:

Explanation:

 

NEW QUESTION 41

Refer to the exhibit. Where are the browser page rendering permissions displayed?

  • A. x-content-type-options
  • B. x-frame-options
  • C. x-test-debug
  • D. x-xss-protection

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference: https://developer.mozilla.org/en-US/docs/Web/HTTP/Headers/X-Content-Type-Options

 

NEW QUESTION 42
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CyberOps Professional 350-201 Real Exam Questions and Answers FREE Updated: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1eObto2aw8_LfG2YfyTZ0soeENBgq_nZe